Endeavor Maneuvers Validation (MV) Oral Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• For a bleeds closed takeoff, what must be engaged if the APU is inoperative?
• What is the model number for the CRJ 700?
• What should be done if cowl and continuous ignition are required simultaneously?
• Which engine numbers are associated with the CRJ 700?
• How can you tell that cross-side RTU information is displayed?
• What is the position of the ISOL valve when the bleed valve selector is set to AUTO and the valve is selected to OPEN?
• What is the purpose of the EMER/NORM button on the RTU panel?
• When do the EMER lights activate due to loss of power?
• What configuration will give you SLATS 25?
• How many smoke detectors are present in the FWD cargo bay?
• Where are the emergency lights typically located outside the aircraft?
• When would the CROSS TIE close?
• What is a typical reaction when the engine fire system test passes?
• Under what condition will the Flight Management System (FMS) not autotune?
• Which panel is crucial for switching the display to EICAS?
• Which generator is associated with the Airborne Generator Bus (AGB)?
• How can you disengage the autopilot in the aircraft?
• What is the operation relation between the bleed selector and ISOL valve?
• How does the automatic cross-flow function operate?
• What is the primary function of the APU and main battery?
• What is the operational difference between the two types of cargo fire bottles?
• What role do the heat sensitive capsules play in the lavatory fire detection system?
• What is the significance of monitoring the green data block on the FMS?
• In the situation of a left elevator jam, which action is taken for autopilot?
• Where can you see if the autopilot is engaged?
• Understanding the vertical speed on the FMS is essential for what purpose?
• How can the actual cabin temperature be observed?
• What is indicated when the fire alarm sounds?
• What is the distinction between an A/I DUCT failure and a WING OVERHEAT fault?
• What gauges take over the monitoring of engine oil after engine startup?
• What is the function of the EMER FLAP switch?
• What is the function of the APU when on the ground during a fire event?
• What does the FAULT light on the IDG indicate?
• Where can you find the vertical speed required for a crossing restriction on the FMS?
• What does a TCAS Traffic Advisory (TA) indicate?
• What is the thrust rating for the CRJ 900 when APR is engaged?
• Under what condition will HYD pump 1B not turn on?
• What does it signify when the bleeds are closed?
• What is EICAS commonly used for in aircraft systems?
• What should be done if the emergency lights remain on after the aircraft is powered down?
• What lights indicate a system failure when the essential bus loses power?
• What should a pilot check if they observe the A/I DUCT fail indication?
• What is the capability of both the MAIN and APU battery?
• What does an AMBER A or E indicate on the PFD?
• What is activated when the APU FIRE PUSH button is pressed?
• What is a feature of the anti-skid system?
• What EICAS message is displayed if the APU catches fire while on the ground?
• What component of the aircraft provides backup power during engine start?
• Which indications are lost with an AHRS/IRS failure?
• Is it normal to see the bulk fuel temperature colder than the engine fuel?
• If a transfer failed on GEN 1, what is the probable cause?
• How is fuel heated in the system described?
• What information does the FMS provide?
• What is one method to shut down the APU?
• What fuel imbalance is permissible during takeoff?
• In the context of engine indications, what does the N2 gauge display?
• What happens when the hydraulic switches are set to AUTO?
• Can you tune COM 1 and NAV 1 from RTU 2?
• Which doors are not displayed on the DOORS page?
• What is the output pressure of the pump in ON mode?
• How many fire extinguishers are required on board an aircraft?
• What happens to the HYD 3B pump when the ADG deploys?
• What is the windshield heat usage when below 30?
• What does the "Landing bit" refer to during aircraft operations?
• What is a condition for the system to switch pressure controllers?
• If the MFD fails, can you display it on another screen?
• What indicates low fuel pressure in the system?
• Can you cross side tune if you lose an RTU?
• Is there a checklist available for MFD failure?
• If the ADG deploys, what will happen to hydraulic system 3?
• How many Air Data Computers (ADCs) are there on the aircraft?
• What is indicated when a fault occurs in the IDG?
• What is the secondary function of the APU?
• Under what conditions do HYD 1B and HYD 2B automatically activate?
• What is the function of the fuel boost pump?
• How do you initiate a DME hold?
• What crucial function does the TRU perform in the aircraft?
• How can you verify sufficient oxygen for a jumpseater?
• What aspect of cabin management can the cabin temperature monitor directly influence?
• What is the turn radius of the Boeing 700?
• What does the DIFF PRESS indication signal in aircraft operations?
• Which type of smoke detection is utilized in the cargo area?
• What mode ensures that the aircraft operates safely above 50% N2?
• What is the model number for the CRJ 900?
• What is indicated when the CABIN ALT caution light illuminates?
• What is the first memory item when dealing with a jammed aileron?
• What should you always verify before takeoff regarding trim settings?
• If all AC power is lost, what system is deployed as a backup?
• What happens when the APU fire push button is activated?
• What is the operation of windshield heat when outside air temperature is 30 degrees or above on the ground?
• What triggers the automatic crossflow function in fuel management?
• What happens to the hydraulic system when only one generator is operating?
• What is the primary function of pressing the AFT cargo smoke push button?
• What angle do the slats extend to when the EMER FLAP switch is activated on the 900 model?
• How does the ice detector probe operate?
• What is indicated by the SMOKE AFT CARGO warning?
• If you have a 100-foot taxiway clearance, can you taxi on that taxiway?
• What components do you lose when your pneumatics are closed?
• Is there a checklist available for MFD failure?
• What happens to the windshield heat when flying at altitude regardless of temperature?
• How is it verified that the main cabin door is closed?
• How many escape ropes are there in the aircraft?
• What should be done if you notice fluctuating fuel levels on the synoptic page?
• How many exits are available on the aircraft?
• What should be done regarding airspeed after cabin depressurization?
• What occurs when you activate the EMER switch on the audio control panel?
• How can the water levels in potable water tanks be monitored?
• What indicates a loss of attitude and heading in an aircraft?
• When a warning occurs due to smoke in the AFT cargo, what is the immediate aural indication?
• How can EICAS information be displayed on the MFD?
• When will the fire extinguisher put the fire out in the LAV?
• Which buttons would you use to change the altitude mode on the FCP?
• How many pressure controllers are specified in the text?
• If the HYD 1B pump is in AUTO and the left engine is OFF, under what conditions will the 1B pump come on?
• What does the green ICE advisory message indicate?
• How can you confirm that the fire system test has passed?
• What is the minimum turnaround time for brake cooling?
• What does an IDG fault light signify?
• What does 'flaps greater than 0' signify in relation to HYD 1B and HYD 2B?
• Under what circumstance would the MAIN TIE connector close?
• How can a pilot identify an ADC failure?
• What occurs if an electrical load transfer fails during operation?
• At what cabin altitude does the "NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEAT BELT" signs turn ON according to the CPAM sequence?
• What condition leads to the activation of emergency oxygen masks?
• What is the primary role of the GCU in a generator transfer scenario?
• Which of the following is NOT a method to disconnect the autopilot?
• When can you cross-side tune the other RTU?
• When will the ADG deploy?
• What should be done with elevator controls during a left elevator jam?
• What does the term "hardwire" refer to in aircraft systems?
• What is the first step to take when experiencing a left elevator jam?
• What gauge becomes active for engine oil after engine start?
• What does "Unusual attitudes" cause in relation to autopilot?
• What should be monitored if an IDG fault light illuminates?
• What happens when a tank is 50 pounds above the lower tank in automatic cross-flow?
• Where can you find the required oxygen levels?
• What is the first warning indicated by the CPAM sequence at 8500 feet?
• Which buttons will continue to operate if the EICAS control panel fails?
• What is the power specification of the IDG?
• How many components are there in the accessory gearbox?
• What condition activates the anti-skid system during landing?
• Where are the escape ropes located?
• How do you distinguish between LOC with NO GS and LOC with unreliable GS?
• What is the ALB VOR approach minimum for a 700?
• Which components are part of the fuel synoptic page?
• What is the maximum speed for landing gear retraction?
• At what engine speed (N2) does the FADEC receive power from its own alternator?
• What is the key difference between a TCAS Traffic Advisory (TA) and a Resolution Advisory (RA)?
• What would cause a takeoff configuration warning?
• What is a reason that the HYD pump 3B operates regardless of switch position?
• What is the maximum tire speed for the 900 series?
• How do pilots typically receive airspeed data?
• What is the thrust rating for the CRJ 700 in normal operation?
• How is the FADEC powered when the N2 is below 50%?
• What is NOT a stall indication?
• What is the wingspan of the CRJ 700?
• Where can the normal hydraulic levels be found?
• What happens when the ED1 fails?
• What is the thrust rating for the CRJ 700 with APR engaged?
• What do you see if you select the opposite side AIR DATA switch?
• What is the cowl anti-ice limitation temperature?
• When is the only time the hydraulic B pumps turn on?
• What happens when the ADC knob is set to ADC 1?
• What is the typical oil level range that would require contacting maintenance?
• What does the presence of a FAULT light on the air conditioning system suggest?
• What is indicated with an amber H when performing a DME hold?
• What happens if both ESS TRUs fail?
• What is the sequence of events for an APU fire while on the ground?
• What is the function of the main battery regarding the APU?
• Which buttons on the FCP are used to change the lateral mode?
• Why isn't there a checklist for an ED1 failure?
• Which item from the pushback checklist procedure is responsible for turning on the FDR?
• What is the method to manually close the hydraulic SOV?
• What does the APU PWR/FUEL button do when on the ground?
• What types of information do the ADCs provide?
• When would the pneumatics transition from engines to APU on landing?
• Which substance is used to combat an electrical fire?
• What could a colder bulk fuel temperature indicate?
• What condition will result in an APU bottle low indication?
• What components are located on the AGB?
• Who retains control of the aircraft when the left elevator is jammed?
• When must windshield heat be activated?
• Under what condition does the MAIN TIE close?
• If the AFT potable water tank has insulation, what is its effect?
• What does an air conditioning FAULT light indicate?
• If cabin depressurization occurs at FL240, what vertical mode should be used?
• What is the primary purpose of the APU?
• What is the primary purpose of the APU?
• What step in the pushback procedure turns on the FDR?
• What could indicate a potential hazard during operations with TCAS?
• Which system component does the FDR relate to in the pushback procedure?
• In the context of hydraulic systems, what does SOV stand for?
• What prevents the AFT potable water tank from freezing?
• What is the visibility minimum for VOR 28 at Albany for a CRJ-700?
• What color indicates a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA)?
• What does the term "ATC" indicate in air traffic control communication?
• What action is taken when the FCC fails during flight?
• Can you flex if FMS 1 and 2 are INOP?
• What occurs when the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH button is pressed?
• In which situation would you need to manually turn off emergency lights?
• What are the rated voltage and current specifications for the TRU?
• What is the maximum number of people that can stand on the door?
• When is the FADEC powered by the aircraft electrical system?
• What triggers the ESS TIE to close?
• What action should be confirmed when handling the pitch disc during an elevator jam situation?
• What is the specification for the APU BATTERY?
• How do you identify a localizer if it doesn't appear on the PFD?
• Where does the APU get its fuel from?
• What triggers the activation of the halon fire extinguisher in the LAV?
• What happens when you select the FLX RESET?
• Which buttons on the FCP control lateral modes?
• Which of the following doors is not displayed on the DOORS synoptic page?
• What happens if you press the manual switch for pressure controllers once?
• What is a key difference between an APU fire on the ground compared to in the air?
• How is hydraulic power regulated when both generators are operational?
• What happens to the green autopilot indication on the PFD during autopilot disconnection?
• What happens to pressurization when pneumatics are closed?
• When do the bleeds switch back to the APU after landing?
• What happens when only one ice detector detects ice?
• Where does the APU get fuel from?
• What is the primary purpose of the APU?
• When must wing and cowl anti-ice systems be activated?
• What condition will prevent the FMS from autotuning?
• What causes the autopilot to automatically disconnect?
• What mode is used to control the cabin temperature manually?
• What is the rated voltage and amperage of the MAIN BATTERY?
• What are the indications of a HOT start during engine start-up?
• What is the windshield heat usage when above 30?
• What happens at a cabin altitude of 14000 ft according to the CPAM sequence?
• When does HYD pump 1B activate in AUTO mode?
• What powers the heated blanket on the AFT potable water tank?
• What auxiliary system is activated with the green ICE advisory message?
• Which EICAS message only appears on engine indications as required?
• What happens when you pass VMO/MMO?
• What indicates an electrical fault in the system according to EICAS messages?
• What role does the fuel boost pump perform?
• What is the first action to take if coffee spills on the RTU and it goes blank?
• How do you manually close the HYD SOV?
• Under what condition will the APU turn off automatically?
• What does an ICE caution indicate?
• What does the lavatory fire detection system utilize to trigger halon discharge?
• What occurs when the FAULT/DISC button is pressed on an IDG fault?
• How long can passenger oxygen masks supply oxygen?
• What is the function of the NACA scoop on the wings?
• How can you identify damage to the airframe during a depressurization?
• When will an IDG automatically disconnect from the system?
• What supplies DC power in an aircraft?
• Under which circumstances do the pneumatics switch from APU to engines during takeoff?
• When does the Air Driven Generator (ADG) deploy?
• Which flap detent position provides SLATS 25 (Full)?
• What is the turning radius for the 700 series?
• What does the EICAS priority display first?
• What system prevents the aircraft tires from locking up during landing?
• What happens if there is a fuel imbalance of 800 pounds during all phases of flight apart from takeoff?
• How many dual temperature sensors are associated with each wing in the AILC?
• How many exits are typically found on the aircraft?
• What is indicated by the presence of the AP ENG FCC lights?
• Which color indicates a Warning on the EICAS display?
• What is the turning radius for the 900 series?
• What components are included in the accessory gear box?
• What does the AC ESS XFER switch light signify?
• How is RNP utilized in aircraft navigation systems?
• What is the wingspan of the CRJ 900?
• What are the cabin pressure modes available?
• What is the function of the hydraulic switch in AUTO mode?
• What is the purpose of the powered escape ropes?
• How many channels are included in the FADEC system?
• What cabin altitude is expected during a depressurization with no damage to the airframe?
• Where can the normal oil level ranges be found?
• What is the function of the AILC?
• What is the difference between taxiing with the tiller and taxiing with the rudder?
• What is the approach category for the 900 series?
• What is the maximum speed for landing gear being down and locked?
• What is the maximum tire speed for the 700 series?
• Where does the air come from when the cross bleed valve is selected from the left?
• Which component is confirmed and then pulled and locked during jammed aileron scenarios?
• What is the purpose of the dual loop smoke detection system?
• What code can be used to identify a Loss of Control (LOC) if it is not displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?